2

My question is with reference to this answer. Though the conclusion is agreed by both Shi'a and Sunni, the Shi'a have a problem with the source of the evidence. Considering that it is one of the largest (second highest actually) source of Sunnah of the Prophet (May Peace be upon him) in Sunni Islam, we will encounter this very often. So, is it required to explicitly mention that this "evidence" is fake/unreliable according to Shi'a or Shi'a do not agree with this evidence, every time?

In my opinion, it will make the answer messy. Thoughts?

9
  • 1
    I was talking about that special case only, since the question about the differences between Sunnih and Shi'a has been asked before. Here.
    – Gigili
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 12:17
  • @Gigili That was about differing opinions and it was decided to mention it is sunni view since the central theme of the whole post would be sunni point of view. However, we did not discuss about differing evidences. I think it is very important to discuss. Since, I believe it will make the answer messy and disrupts the flow of the answer if I have to mention "This evidence is not accepted by Shi'a" everytime.
    – Abdullah
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 12:21
  • I don't see how the answer gets messy by mentioning that since it's true! Not sure about everytime but in this case I found it extremely necessary since The whole answer differs.
    – Gigili
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 12:43
  • @Gigili How does it differ? You said "..while it's indeed permissible." That is the answer of the post too. It is permissible.
    – Abdullah
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 12:45
  • "X is permissible" is different from "X is permissible but is considered extremely disrespectful". No one would do X when the latter is the case. As it is, no one really recites Quran in bed since it's highly recommended not to. One have to understand to whom he/she is talking while reciting Quran or whose words they are.
    – Gigili
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 12:50
  • @Gigili However, It is not opposite. The difference is not something like permissible according sunni but impermissible according to shi'a. That is worth mentionable. However, this is not. If we were to mention every minor difference in opinion, it will lead only to confusion.
    – Abdullah
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 12:54
  • Your whole answer is two ahadith from Aishah whom we don't believe as a good person and one from someone else whom I never heard of. you wrote "lying down" which we disagree with. I'm more concerned since it's selected as the best answer and is quite misleading.
    – Gigili
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 12:58
  • @Gigili That is why we are here to know the opinion of other people. I have no problem with agreeing with what others deem fitting. Moreover, since the questioner doesn't have a problem with "evidence" from Aisha, he has accepted the answer. You don't have to worry about "misleading" because accepted answer need not be the best answer -meta.islam.stackexchange.com/questions/117/…
    – Abdullah
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 13:03
  • I know, and I see it's not the best answer there. But unregistered users or other users who are not a regular one here, would normally read the accepted answer. Let's see what others think. I've said enough.
    – Gigili
    Commented Jun 26, 2012 at 13:10

3 Answers 3

3

I'd leave it to the judgment of the answerer. However, if someone comments asking for an explicit attribution to a school of thought, then I think that request should be honored.

1

I feel that so long as the source is attributed, it can be left up to the person reading the answer to decide whether that source is reliable.

The reference in question clearly states who narrated it, and in this case even who has classified this narration as authentic; there is no real need to say "This is a Sunni source," or "This is a Shi'a source," on top of that, it just clutters the answer with redundant information.

Unless your post is explicitly covering the different points of view concerning the topic among different schools (at which point lampshading the discrepency makes sense) or the question is clearly asked from a perspective that would consider the source inauthentic (at which point why are you even mentioning it?), I wouldn't bother. Otherwise you might as well add "This hadith is not accepted by Quran-only Muslims," to everything as well, and possibly a string of other warnings.

1

Is it needed? Maybe not.

But I think adding a small note like "(Sunni)" after the name of the source would not be messy and can be more clear and informative.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .