What to do...

Post drafts of questions as answers to this post before submitting them to the main site. Please include the proposed:

  1. Title. See: Advice for writing question titles on Islam.SE
  2. Question body.

    I find this format works well:

    1. Motivation (why are you asking this question).
    2. Question (one question, highlighted).
    3. What I think the answer would be, but why I'm uncertain.
  3. Tags. (E.g. write [tag:women] for .)


The eventual goal is to improve question quality and reduce comment noise. To this end, this thread enables users to give feedback before the post is live. It's a kind of question peer review.

Will this achieve anything?

I don't know. I'll do this as a trial run for now, to see how/if it works. And we can adapt it as we go along.

If it works, great. If it doesn't, we can try something else instead.

I'll start with draft question below.


This is an attempt at implementing the question sandbox suggested here by Zaid; see also How would a "question sandbox" work and how would it help the site?. I don't think a chat room would be useful for this site would be helpful, so I'll use a meta thread, like at Code Golf.

  • 3
    Would probably make sense to add a rule to delete sandboxed questions after they've been posted (a la Code Golf's) to prevent clutter.
    – goldPseudo Mod
    May 8, 2017 at 16:49
  • Rebbeca, can you please show me steps of how to create any tag I want?
    – Alex A
    Oct 23, 2018 at 15:08

25 Answers 25


What exactly is Taqwa?

So many verses in the Qur'an call on the believers to have Taqwa, which is usually translated as "piety" or consciousness of Allah.

But what does observing piety entail? What does having consciousness of Allah imply?

There are also some Qur'anic verses that order people to have Taqwa of other things, such as the Hell-fire and the Day of Judgment. How can a person observe Taqwa with respect to these things?

  • It's a reasonable enough question, although it probably should address why the Wikipedia page for taqwa isn't satisfying. [The Wikipedia page seems very theoretical, perhaps it might be better aiming for what taqwa entails in an everyday Muslim's life?] May 5, 2017 at 15:28
  • Hmm... now I worry it's two questions in one. May 6, 2017 at 11:41
  • @RebeccaJ.Stones According to you, what would those two questions be?
    – Zaid
    May 6, 2017 at 12:08
  • "But what does observing piety entail? What does having consciousness of Allah imply?" is one question (rephrased in two ways). The new one "How can a person observe Taqwa with respect to these things?" is the second. (But even if they're not separate questions, asking multiple questions makes it unclear what the actual question is.) May 6, 2017 at 12:12
  • I see where you're coming from. I still think the two are related because the answers are closely tied to the definition(s) of Taqwa. Let me dwell on it some more
    – Zaid
    May 6, 2017 at 12:14
  • The second "How can a person observe..." question also feels a bit too open-ended and listy to me.
    – goldPseudo Mod
    May 6, 2017 at 18:10
  • 1
    Will this question ever be posted?
    – user23533
    Jun 5, 2018 at 13:15

What are the similarities/differences between a wife and a female slave owned by a man?

Married women have several similarities with slave women: (a) obedience, (b) sex is permissible, (c) she may ransom herself (kuhl' vs. mukataba), (d) "excellent treatment" (amjaonline.org vs. islam.ru), (e) clothing and food (Sahih al-Bukhari 2545).

I'm not sure about housing.

I believe there's also some differences: (a) property ownership, (b) inheritance, (c) rights over children, (d) co-ownership, (e) slaves can be sold, (f) legal rights to qisas.

Question: What are the similarities/differences between a wife and a female slave owned by a man?

Basically, I have some ideas (listed above), but I'm not sure if this is complete, and if these are reliable.

Question offcuts (ignore this; it's so I can copy/paste later, if needed)

  • A Muslim wife must obey her husband in everything unless he commands her to do an act of disobedience (IslamWeb). I presume it's the same for a female slave.

  • The husband/owner can have sex with his wife/slave; see Are Muslim men allowed to take "sex slaves?".

  • A wife can "ransom herself" (Qur'an 2:229) to get a divorce (khul') with her husband's permission, as can a slave (mukataba; Qur'an 24:33).

  • Islam espouses "excellent treatment of slaves" (amjaonline.org) and similarly for wives (islam.ru).

  • Like a husband for his wife, the slave owner is responsible for feeding and clothing their slave (Sahih al-Bukhari 2545). Presumably, slaves are also housed in some way.

However, I feel like there should be some significant reason these two roles are distinct. I'm just not sure what it is.

  • I'm not sure about this; it might be a bit confrontational. I have some idea of an answer too, e.g., property rights and qisas. Mar 30, 2018 at 17:11
  • You mean the differences apart from religion and approval? A right-hand possession is basically a prisoner of war so she cannot be a Muslim, and she has no right to refuse to become a right-hand possession.
    – III-AK-III
    Mar 30, 2018 at 22:20
  • @III-AK-III: ah... now I know the answer (: Mar 30, 2018 at 23:03
  • I'm quite uncertain about this question. Apr 1, 2018 at 2:47
  • I have not come across a list of differences as such. I have not researched one due to its inapplicability in today's world. It's a broad topic, too. Perhaps with a bit of narrowing of the scope, it may be addressable.
    – III-AK-III
    Apr 1, 2018 at 10:18
  • What might work is breaking it up into multiple questions, e.g., What's the difference between khul' (for a wife) and mukataba (for a female slave)? But maybe each of those questions are answerable via Google. Apr 2, 2018 at 2:04
  • I see your point. I guess there is no real harm in posting the question as a general one, then digging deeper if any of the answers warrant further research.
    – III-AK-III
    Apr 2, 2018 at 2:07

How can a man who has no hands or feet steal? (Is this hadith weak?)

The following hadith is classed as "Hasan (Al-Albani)" on sunnah.com:

Narrated Jabir ibn Abdullah:

A thief was brought to the Prophet. He said: Kill him. The people said: He has committed theft, Messenger of Allah! Then he said: Cut off his hand. So his (right) hand was cut off.

He was brought a second time and he said: Kill him. The people said: He has committed theft, Messenger of Allah! Then he said: Cut off his foot. So his (left) foot was cut off.

He was brought a third time and he said: Kill him. The people said: He has committed theft, Messenger of Allah! So he said: Cut off his hand. So his (left) hand was cut off.

He was brought a fourth time and he said: Kill him. The people said: He has committed theft, Messenger of Allah! So he said: Cut off his foot. So his (right) foot was cut off.

He was brought a fifth time and he said: Kill him. So we took him away and killed him. We then dragged him and cast him into a well and threw stones over him.
Sunan Abi Dawud 4410

I don't understand how this could be classed as "hasan": it seems to violate common sense. It seems implausible that someone with no hands or feet could steal (and steal a shield's worth of goods; Sahih al-Bukhari 6794).

Question: Do scholars consider this hadith weak?

  • Please clarify what violates common sense: (1) Is it because the hadd can only be applied to the one physically removing the property of someone else's; whereas, for those who participate in a theft through other means, the hadd does not apply to them? (2) Or is the assumption that the person in the hadith was the sole thief and was unable to physically commit theft due to his impairment (as in rejecting that one could potentially use one's mouth to steal a diamond ring, for instance)? (3) Or are you questioning the hadd being the killing on the fifth theft?
    – III-AK-III
    Apr 2, 2018 at 15:42
  • Also, there is an implied question that if a hadith violates common sense (e.g., the hadith of al-Mi'rāj when prayers became mandatory, as most people find it hard to logically accept the ascent to heaven in the 7th century), which I recommend that you reword as this may deviate the answers into a different topic altogether (unless this is the intent of your question).
    – III-AK-III
    Apr 2, 2018 at 15:42
  • It seems (2) is what I mean. While I recognize it's theoretically possible, it's implausible. There's no mention of accomplices in the hadith. [Actually (3) is a fair point too, along with the Prophet ordering death for theft initially.] In this question, I'm hoping to stick to this particular hadith, but if there's a general principle (what happens if a hadith violates common sense) it'll probably get mentioned regardless. Apr 2, 2018 at 23:23
  • I am not sure how you can reword it then to make it clear. There is a Ph.D. dissertation about this hadith in particular in terms of point (3) then it delves into point (2) but more on the chain of narration and how Al-Alabni reached his grade (which is not exactly "hassan"; rather "mursal hassan"). I fear the common sense part may draw opinions in answers rather than references to what the scholars said.
    – III-AK-III
    Apr 3, 2018 at 0:21
  • Imam an-Nasai considered this hadith as munkar (rejected) due to مصعب بن ثابت who is considered as weak by several scholars as stated in in عون المعبود and in سير أعلام النبلاء you may find that among these scholars you may find imam Ahmad, and abu Hathim and even ibn Hebban considered him as rejected! Elsewhere you may find ibn 'Abd al-Bar rejecting it and considering it a fabrication.
    – user23533
    Jun 5, 2018 at 13:24
  • The tag "authentication" does not exist, but we have "authenticity" instead.
    – Medi1Saif Mod
    Oct 23, 2018 at 13:00

Should a wife keep her past nikah mut'ah marriage(s) secret?

In the case of a previously divorced wife, it seems impractical and inappropriate to keep a past marriage secret (there may be some exceptions, e.g., the husband might request this). In the case of a past nikah mut'ah, it's possible different.

Question: Should a wife keep her past nikah mut'ah marriage(s) secret?

If she revealed her past nikah mut'ah marriage(s), her husband may infer her sexual history. If she doesn't, it might be construed as deceptive.


Does "drawing a drawing of an animate being" include an instance of "drawing an animate being"?

A painting (and drawings, etc.) is not animate; a painting does not have a soul. For example, the following is a drawing of a famous painting:

Image source: Wikimedia commons: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Stylized_Mona_Lisa.svg

Thus one might argue:

  1. This is a drawing of an inanimate painting, and thus is permissible to draw.
  2. This is a drawing of an animate woman, and thus its permissibility falls under the rulings of drawing an animate being.

I'm not sure which is correct.

Question: Does "drawing a drawing of an animate being" include an instance of "drawing an animate being"?

This logic is said to be used for depictions of representations of Muhammad in Iran:

Ce portrait d'un portrait dans les nombreuses variantes iraniennes, par son attribution, non seulement disculpe les musulmans du sacrilège que représenterait la figuration du Prophète, mais affirme également une reconnaissance, par les chrétiens, de la vocation prophétique de Mahomet.
Une étrange rencontre (warning: contains depictions of a depiction of Muhammad)

This translates to:

(Google Translate) This portrait of a portrait in the numerous Iranian variants, by its attribution, not only exonerates Muslims from the sacrilege represented by the Prophet's representation, but also affirms a recognition by Christians of the prophetic vocation of Muhammad.


How to take some seemingly exaggerated statement about famous scholars or pious people?

In many Friday sermons and lessons scholars often just quote statements about the piety of some people of the golden ages of Islam.
For example Sa'id ibn al-Musayyib is said to have been prayed more than 40 years every fard prayers in congregation (Maybe even in a mosque) this statement is often used to show the importance of praying in a mosque or in congregation. This statement might sound exaggerated but it is of a kind one may take as plausible.

Another statement which seems to be wrong is that abu Hanifa was always wishing to perform hajj and made an oath to pray two long rak'as at the haram once he might be able to do it (reciting the whole Qur'an) and when he made it it was a rainy night. As far as I know there was nothing hindering abu Hanifa to do hajj and he even met and discussed with scholars from al-Hijaz in there.

But on the other hand there are statements and narrations that don't seem plausible or feasible at all for example the statement that imam a-Shafi'i used to complete the Qur'an recitation on each day of Ramadan and all that while praying. If we toke the shortest and fastest recitation of the Qur'an we may never be able to complete a Qur'an recitation twice on one day it is even hardly feasible to complete it once (even in qira'at ibn Kathir which apparently imam a-Shafi'i was taught) even if we neglect the tajweed rulings! This may lead to the conclusion either this statement is a lie or it shouldn't be taken literally or there's some kind of misunderstanding or error in transmission.

So how should we take these exaggerations, just as a encouragement to more piety or do we need to check their truth and maybe reject them?


Are there rulings on how to pay zakat if one delayed paying it?

I'd be glad for some input as I don't want this to become too broad:

Muslims are asked to pay zakat and we are warned not to delay it as this is considered as sinful act especially it is antisocial. Let's assume a Muslim has delayed paying zakat and wants to pay it -lets say not after a Lunar year, but after 16 months in Gregorian Calendar or five years later.

Is there any ruling on this should he for example pay more?
Or what will he need to do to pay his due and get relief from the burden of his sin of delaying to pay it?

Assuming there is a deviation from the amount he would have needed to pay after a lunar year, what reasons may create an exception from the rule. For example are the any excuses which allow him to delay, for example a dead line for a debt he was afraid not to pay, but could pay finally or the money is in another country and he can't reach it at the moment etc.


Which surah of the Qur'an covers the most topics?

Note: I'm afraid that this might be declared as either too broad or unclear, therefore comments are welcome.

If we look at different surahs of the Qur'an we may find them addressing many topics: For example surat al-Ikhlas has as a main topic the 'aqeedah or more especially the topic of unity of Allah While in surat al-Kahf we have the stories of the people of the cave, the story of dhul- Qarnain, the story of Musa and al-Khidr etc.

To make a clear cut between topics I'll try to ask this in separate questions as indicated in my comment on @III-AK-III's comment:

First Variation posted as a question Which surah(s) of the Qur'an covers the most stories (Prophets/real person)?

The second Variation is: "Which surah(s) of the Qur'an cover the most rulings of shari'a (fiqh)?"
For example I'd count 'idah as part of talaq process, and khul' or faskh as a synonym of talaq, mainly I'd say that anything which is part of the same fiqh topic should be considered as one topic. Worship for example would be divided only into: Taharah, Prayer, Fasting, Zakat and Hajj.


  • Is the answer going to be Surah al-Baqarah simply because it's long? May 4, 2018 at 0:28
  • I suggest that you define topic. For example, Surat al-Kahf has several stories (4-5 stories, depending on whether the story of Adam counts or not), but it has more topics as it discusses the deeds of the disbelievers on Judgment Day, too. Surat Yūsuf is long and it can be perceived as one topic or as multiple topics (if you consider the lessons, at least 100 lessons learned, and if you consider the scenes of the story, then multiple still). Having said that, I doubt anyone counted, but who knows.
    – III-AK-III
    May 4, 2018 at 1:31
  • 1
    @III-AK-III this is one issue I had in mind when writing my "Note", but your comment made clear that one could go into details and then it will become too broad or opinion-based. maybe I'll need to stick on prophetic stories. And I could ask a separate question about topics like rulings etc.
    – Medi1Saif Mod
    May 4, 2018 at 5:47

How could we know which qira'a was used in the original manuscript of a tafsir book?

During my investigation for Why is the Hafs reading of the Qur'an so prevalent? I couldn't stop thinking about the statement of the author of my major source (the scholar ibn Amin) about tafsir books which were originally written as footnotes of a moshaf in a special qira'a (mostly of abi 'Amr).

My assumption is that we need an old or original manuscript, and still then it could be uneasy do distinguish some qira'at without tashkil (I'm not sure to what extent other sygns and symbols in a moshaf or rasm al-moshaf could be helpful)

Therefore my question is how could we know which qira'a was used in the original manuscript of a tafsir book?


Titles of scholarship and their meaning?

Often when certain scholars are quoted you hear or read "al-Hafidh X", "sheikh al-Islam Y", "hojjat al-Islam Z" I'm not aware of other titles that are more known. However there's also the "title": "The leader of the believers" when it comes to hadith scholars -at least this is the only link I have to this title when it comes to scholars.

I'd like to know if these titles have a foundation, or did the meaning change with time, is it a different meaning based on the study topic a scholar exceled or is there a relevance to the madhhab of scholar for example scholar x is called sheikh al-Islam only by the followers of his madhhab.

This is only a draft and might need some input. I'm not even sure whether it is on-topic


I'm having a few questions about poetry and Islam in mind that I'd like to ask. I'd like just to share a few thoughts to have a first feedback on them. So this -so far- is not a real question but an extract of thoughts of at least two distinct questions.

What parts of al-Busiri's Burdah are rejected by salafis and why?

I'm planing to write questions on both al-Burdah and al-Hamziyah (the two well known poems of the Muslim Sufi poet al-Busiri البوصيري) which he wrote to praise the Prophet () and their acceptance by some Muslim sects especially the salafi sect for whom sufis seem to be the second big enemy after shi'a.

In many countries these two poems are well known at least the burdah is well known or in worst case a few verses of it which are popular (see for example these youtube videos: Mesut Kurtis or an-Naqshabandi). Some especially recite it/them during the Mawlid an-Nabawi.

My first question would be what rhymes/words/parts do salafis reject or consider as blasphemic, words of kufr etc.

The first question was asked What parts of al-Busiri's Burdah are rejected by salafis and why?

The second question would be how to solve this issue and whether there are attempts to do so?


The cooking recipe of the prophet () and his favourite dishes

Remark: Maybe some would consider this off-topic.

In some ahadith we find a few indications or even descriptions of dishes the prophet () used to eat or liked to eat. Like:

The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "The superiority of `Aisha to other ladies is like the superiority of Tharid to other kinds of food." (Sahih al-Bukhari)

It would be great if the recipes of these dishes could also be introduced as well as known dishes the prophet () or his companions used to eat and what are the main ingredients of these dishes.


  • At least this sounds interesting!
    – Jamila
    Nov 30, 2018 at 21:39

Did the Prophet Muhammad drink tea?

It's hard to go a day in many Muslim-majority countries without being swamped by tea. It's everywhere. I'm wondering if the Prophet Muhammad was reported as drinking tea.

Question: Did the Prophet Muhammad drink tea?

  • This seems a bit short. May 17, 2017 at 9:39
  • The answer would depend on how you define tea, I'd say he never drunk green or black tea ...as these only reached Muslim countries much later!
    – Medi1Saif Mod
    Jul 8, 2017 at 22:07
  • Well, tea does not contain no haram thing in it. So, I suppose that he drank tea in his life, because everyone did. Right? Tea does not contain alcohol nor something that harms the human body.
    – Alex A
    Nov 12, 2017 at 11:33

What are the effects of tawiz beyond simply the words on the page?

Wikipedia describes "tawiz" as follows:

The tawiz is an amulet or locket usually containing verses from the Quran or other "islamic" prayers and symbols. The Tawiz is worn by some Muslims, to protect them from evil. As such it is intended to be an amulet. The word ta'wiz is also used to refer to other types of amulets. It may be a pendant, carvings on metal or even framed duas.

There's been three questions on this site about tawiz: 1. What is the meaning of this Arabic tawiz?, 2. What is the meaning of this taweez (tawiz) writtings?, and 3. How to understand an Amulet / Taveez / Talisman containing devil names? each of these refer to a kind of note, and I ask this question in this context.

Tawiz seems to have more significance than if I were to print out Qur'an verses from my computer and carry that around with me, say. The notion also seems at odds with Islam's attitude towards superstitious beliefs (see e.g.: What is the view of islam about luck?).

Question: What are the effects of tawiz beyond simply the words on the page?

  • Well, the obvious (and useless) answer would be "Learn Arabic". As-written, this looks like a general "How can I translate anything from Arabic" or "How can I look up Arabic words?" which is arguably off-topic; the fact that what you're looking up is tawiz is a tenuous connection to Islam.
    – goldPseudo Mod
    May 5, 2017 at 17:03
  • Indeed, and I don't see how to salvage it either. (It makes me wonder how on-topic those questions are though.) May 5, 2017 at 23:15
  • I think the tawiz questions are on-topic insofar as understanding them is more than just simply translating them. They're intended to have certain effects above and beyond simply the words on the page, which often requires more than a simple knowledge of Arabic to explain.
    – goldPseudo Mod
    May 6, 2017 at 1:36
  • I think another wrinkle here is identifying exactly what "taweez" is, beyond the wikipedia definition. The practice itself predates Islam, and even "Islamic" taweez often includes syncretic elements which are rejected by the more conservative flavours of Islam (even if they would assume that taweez in general are permissible)
    – goldPseudo Mod
    May 8, 2017 at 21:30

When do we know the answer to: "Will XYZ get into heaven?"?

We get a lot of questions asking: "Will XYZ get into heaven?"

This question is aimed at being a generalization of these.

Question: When do we know the answer to: "Will XYZ get into heaven?"?

I'm seeking a reference table for when the answer is (a) "yes", (b) "no", or (c) "don't know"/"up to Allah".

  • Hm... even if the idea behind question is good, but I'm not sure whether there is a consensus about the matter so answers might be either of the kind quoting the different opinions or showing the view of sect X. It could also be that there are even different opinions based on different "situations":
    – Medi1Saif Mod
    Feb 16, 2018 at 12:16

If no-one ever prays in a mosque, is it still a mosque?

[incomplete; needs fleshing out]


After the sun rises in the West, is it still important to pray, and if so, how would prayer times be determined?

[incomplete; needs fleshing out]


Is there a relationship between cutting off hands and feet on opposite sides by Allah (Qur'an 5:33) and Pharaoh (Qur'an 7:124, 20:71, 26:49)?

In the Qur'an, Allah states (interpretation of the meaning):

Indeed, the penalty for those who wage war against Allah and His Messenger and strive upon earth [to cause] corruption is none but that they be killed or crucified or that their hands and feet be cut off from opposite sides or that they be exiled from the land. That is for them a disgrace in this world; and for them in the Hereafter is a great punishment,
Qur'an 5:33

Likewise, Pharaoh also states:

Said Pharaoh, "You believed in him before I gave you permission. Indeed, this is a conspiracy which you conspired in the city to expel therefrom its people. But you are going to know. I will surely cut off your hands and your feet on opposite sides; then I will surely crucify you all."
Qur'an 7:123-124

This is repeated in Qur'an 20:71 and Qur'an 26:49.

A random webpage (which is probably a Qur'an-only and apologetic position) asserts this is because Allah is using the disbelievers' own punishment against them (those that fight against Islam). I give it about as much credit as a guess.

Question: Is there a relationship between cutting off hands and feet on opposite sides by Allah and Pharaoh?


Does Islam forbid mandatory military service (conscription) for women?

Several Muslim-majority countries have military service: Wikipedia lists Egypt (men ages 18 to 30), Iran (men 18+), Tunisia (all citizens 20+, although TunisPro.net says its "voluntary" for women), and Turkey (men 20 to 40). I don't think a Muslim-majority country conscripts women (although I'm not 100% sure about Tunisia).

I'm wondering, therefore, if it's considered a woman's right to opt of out military service.

Question: Does Islam forbid mandatory military service (conscription) for women?

  • I'd add shari'a tag as you ask about Islam! Also it is even somewhat hard to say whether there's any kind of "conscription" in Islam, yes there are verses blaming those who don't follow the call for arms, but other verses say that even in case of a call for Jihad some people must stay and teach and learn! And the prophet () never allowed a lonely son to go out fighting!
    – Medi1Saif Mod
    Sep 5, 2018 at 9:54

Does Qur'an 7:25 preclude the possibility of someone dying permanently off-planet?

The Qur'an says:

[ Allah ] said, "Descend, being to one another enemies. And for you on the earth is a place of settlement and enjoyment for a time." [7:24] He said, "Therein you will live, and therein you will die, and from it you will be brought forth." [7:25]

However, it's scientifically possible that someone could die off-planet, e.g. on the Moon, and space agencies take many precautions. To date, there's been some deaths in space (see space.com), but they're still relatively close to Earth, and could be covered under "therein you will die".

Question: Does Qur'an 7:25 preclude the possibility of someone dying permanently off-planet?

It's possible that Allah is exclusively referring to Adam and Eve, in which case these verses would not apply to all of mankind. However, I'm uncertain about this because saying "being to one another enemies" seems mismatched with the relationship between Adam and Eve (at least, it seems odd that a Prophet would be an enemy of his wife). Moreover:

When God said: “Get you down, all of you” He used the word for plural indicating that he was not speaking to Adam and Eve alone but that He was referring to Adam, his wife and his descendants – mankind.

This implies Qur'an 7:24 applies to all of mankind (although not necessarily Qur'an 7:25).

  • 2
    You seem to be interpreting "you" in 7:24-25 as directed to all mankind, rather than to Adam and Eve personally as the context would imply (and who, as far as I know, definitely did die on Earth). If this is intentional, you should probably expound on why you're taking that interpretation.
    – goldPseudo Mod
    Mar 15, 2018 at 20:14

Would translating the Qur'an to Klingon be disrespecting the Qur'an, and hence kufr?

A satirical news (i.e., it's fake) article describes translating the Qur'an into Klingon: Muslim Nerds Translate Quran to Klingon, Islamica News, 2014. I'm wondering what the Islamic consequences would be if this were true.

Question: Would translating the Qur'an to Klingon be disrespecting the Qur'an, and hence kufr?

It seems plausible that this is a form of disrespecting the Qur'an:

All the Muslim scholars are agreed that contesting, deriding, or minimizing the Qur'an is Kufr, taking the person out of the Muslim community.

However, perhaps the origin of the Klingon language does not enter into this.


What are the contents of the fatwa against marital rape in the KUPI2017 conference?

In the 2017 conference Indonesian Women’s Ulama Congress (Kongres Ulama Perempuan Indonesia, KUPI2017), there are reports of seven women scholars producing a fatwa against marital sexual violence. From the KUPI2017 website:

The first fatwa issued focused on sexual violence. It emphasises that such violence including within marriage (marital rape) is forbidden under Islamic law (haram). It also distinguishes zina (adultery and fornication) from rape. It emphasises that victims must receive psychological, physical and social support – not punishment.
A fatwa against sexual violence: the story of a historic congress of female Islamic scholars, December, 2017

(An earlier news article on the topic is dated April 2017.)

I didn't manage to find the fatwa online, likely because it's in Indonesian. I'm particularly interested in how these scholars came to their conclusions (i.e., what evidence they use). Other fatawa I've seen (e.g. Dar Al-Ifta) only arrive at marital rape being haram indirectly, because violence is haram. It's possible this fatwa is likewise derived.

Question: What are the contents of the fatwa against marital rape in the KUPI2017 conference?

I'm asking for a translation of this fatwa into English, or, if it's particularly long, the main ideas and evidence used in the fatwa.

This is related to: Definition of rape - is marital rape a criminal offense in sharia

  • I cannot connect to the three fatwas. Connection gets refused. I am not sure if this is me or the server is down. Judging by some of the names of some of the authors of the fatwa I found on other servers, I very much doubt that it would be at the level to be considered a fatwa by any scholar.
    – III-AK-III
    Mar 25, 2018 at 18:06

If I were to reject a hadith in Sahih Muslim or Sahih al-Bukhari, who would consider me a disbeliever (if anyone)?

Let's pick a hadith at random from Sahih Muslim or Sahih al-Bukhari: say Sahih Muslim 1234 a. Hypothetically, suppose I were to reject this hadith, in the sense that I don't accept it's authenticity for some reason (it may still give good advice, etc.).

Question: If I were to reject a hadith in Sahih Muslim, who would consider me a disbeliever?

I'm interested in who would consider this and act of disbelief: I don't mean "who" as in "which individuals", but which schools (including Sunni, Shia, and beyond).

My guess would be maybe some (possibly all?) Sunni schools might consider this an act of disbelief, but Shia schools probably would not. Quranism would probably give me a pat on the back for being a good Muslim. Beyond that, I don't know.

It might, however, be more determined by the content of the particular hadith (which is why I picked a particular hadith above). Rejecting this particular hadith does not seem to violate the major beliefs in Islam, however. So maybe no-one would consider me a disbeliever in these circumstances.

  • I am not clear if your question is about denying the authenticity ("I don't accept it's authenticity"), which means you believe the chain of narration is not up to par? Or denying its content "of the [or a] particular hadith", which means you believe the Prophet said so (hadith is authentic) but you do not accept the Prophet's view? I feel the question is somewhat blurring the distinction between the two topics (very different). Or you may want to rephrase it to make a comparison of both?
    – III-AK-III
    Mar 24, 2018 at 13:51
  • I am not sure that including a comparison of the different sects adds value; it may incite debate. Does it add value? Are you looking for the different perspectives?
    – III-AK-III
    Mar 24, 2018 at 13:52
  • Hmmm... I'm putting myself in the shoes of a lay Muslim who simply doesn't like this hadith. Thus I consider this hadith invalid, so I guess that means in content (assume I don't have a well-informed opinion; I just don't like it). [I can get rid of the sects part. Not a big deal (I can ask the separately, if needed).] I'll have to think about this one more carefully. Mar 24, 2018 at 14:14

How, whom and where did Muslims register marriages, birth etc. before modern times civil registration, if they did?

I have question in mind based on what I've learned and know about the Christian societies and whether there's or was something similar in the Muslim societies.

Muslims from the beginning of the revelation gave birth to children, have been married or divorced their wives, some women have breastfed children of other women etc.

I remember having read somewhere that in the 5th century or so it was common that a woman got married and divorced several times and men also (in a biography of a scholar in wikipedia)!

As far as I know in Christian societies (like in the middle age and until the inauguration of institutions like civil registry office) people and the relationship between families like marital status were registered in the church.

So I'd like to know how Muslims would avoid marrying let's say a mahram by fault, have they had institutions which used to register such things?

  • 1
    Sometimes when I write questions and something like this happens "I remember having read somewhere..." I ask that as a separate question first, then link to it. Jun 4, 2017 at 0:42
  • 1
    Interesting question though. I'd suggest 1. getting rid of "I mean...", 2. expanding "AFAIK" (which is informal) to "As far as I know", 3. Changing "I ask myself" to "I ask". Jun 4, 2017 at 0:45

Kufr vs Shirk

Please define what is kufr and what is shirk?
What is the difference between both?


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