The question itself doesn't really make any sense; the whole thing seems to be based on a mistranslation of the hadith, a translation which (as best I can tell) isn't espoused by anyone except the OP.
Of note, here is the entirity of the hadith using a more common translation (as provided by Sunnah.com)
The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "Allah created His creation, and when He had
finished it, the womb, got up and caught hold of Allah whereupon Allah
said, "What is the matter?' On that, it said, 'I seek refuge with you
from those who sever the ties of Kith and kin.' On that Allah said,
'Will you be satisfied if I bestow My favors on him who keeps your
ties, and withhold My favors from him who severs your ties?' On that
it said, 'Yes, O my Lord!' Then Allah said, 'That is for you.' " Abu
Huraira added: If you wish, you can recite: "Would you then if you
were given the authority. do mischief in the land and sever your ties
of kinship. (47. 22)
This is word-for-word the same translation used in OP, except with the first sentence re-translated:
- from: Allah created His creation, and when He had finished it, the womb, got up and caught hold of Allah whereupon Allah said,
- to: Allah created His creation, and when He was done with it, the womb, got up and caught hold of Arrahman's loincloth! Allah said,
This suggests that, rather than asking about a particular, a common, or even a reasonable interpretation of the hadith held by any particular school of Islam (which would easily make the question on-topic and constructive) you're asking about the reasoning behind your own personal interpretation, even though you don't give any particularly compelling argument behind why you've even bothered to translate it like that (while ignoring multiple comments mentioning the peculiarity of the translation).
But that's all moot, since the question isn't really asking about the reasoning behind the translation. It isn't even asking about why your translation and the more common translation differ. Basically, all it does is presents a peculiar translation (which, by the quoted reference in the post itself, is not even the primary definition the word), then asks if we're supposed to agree with that translation.
Honestly, I can't see any constructive value to this question; as written, it looks like nothing more than a crude attempt to either lay doubt on the collection of Sahih Bukhari or the narrations of Abu Hurayrah, rather than an actual legitimate question based on an actual problem you face. That sort of polemic question is not what the site is geared toward, and such are not welcome on this site at all.
If such polemic was not your intent, then the question still needs to be reworked to make that clear, and to focus on what (if any) legitimate question you're actually asking. Otherwise, keeping it closed as "unclear" makes perfect sense.